That's probably because there is no significant difference between the British and American pronunciations of "tilde". It's not like "fast" or "car" or "new" where the differences are more noticeable.
I can't tell the difference.
That's probably because there is no significant difference between the British and American pronunciations of "tilde". It's not like "fast" or "car" or "new" where the differences are more noticeable.
If you're in the minority, then so am I. It probably comes from the fact that I first learned the word in the context of middle-school Spanish, but I pronounce it 'till-day' and 'till-dace' (i.e....
If you're in the minority, then so am I. It probably comes from the fact that I first learned the word in the context of middle-school Spanish, but I pronounce it 'till-day' and 'till-dace' (i.e. with an unvoiced 'S' and not a voiced 'Z' for the plural) respectively.
You are right, of course, but I think @Arishaig was just saying that they use the unvoiced 'S' to pluralize tildes (as one would in Spanish) rather than the voiced 'S' (as one would in English).
You are right, of course, but I think @Arishaig was just saying that they use the unvoiced 'S' to pluralize tildes (as one would in Spanish) rather than the voiced 'S' (as one would in English).
I think we're all in complete agreement here, but it's hard to tell because we're using the concepts of letters and phonemes interchangeably. To be clear, I was saying that the letter 'S', in the...
I think we're all in complete agreement here, but it's hard to tell because we're using the concepts of letters and phonemes interchangeably. To be clear, I was saying that the letter 'S', in the context of word tildes, is pronounced as a voiced alveolar fricative in English and a voiceless alveolar fricative in Spanish. The first sound is represented in IPA as /z/, while the second is represented in IPA as /s/. In English and Spanish orthography, however, both of these sounds are represented by the letter 'S' :)
I think it's safe to say that that's exactly what's happening here, and led to confusion on my part. Thanks for clearing it up for me, I wasn't aware of the difference in the Spanish pronunciation...
I think we're all in complete agreement here, but it's hard to tell because we're using the concepts of letters and phonemes interchangeably.
I think it's safe to say that that's exactly what's happening here, and led to confusion on my part.
Thanks for clearing it up for me, I wasn't aware of the difference in the Spanish pronunciation of 'S'.
You are exactly right @zap. I didn't want to break out the IPA in mixed company ;). When I referred to a "voiced S" I did indeed mean the /z/ phoneme as differentiated from the /s/ phoneme.
You are exactly right @zap. I didn't want to break out the IPA in mixed company ;). When I referred to a "voiced S" I did indeed mean the /z/ phoneme as differentiated from the /s/ phoneme.
They were just describing the two sounds in a way that shows how they contrast. They could have said "with a voiceless alveolar fricative, /s/, and not a voiced alveolar fricative, /z/" for the...
They were just describing the two sounds in a way that shows how they contrast. They could have said "with a voiceless alveolar fricative, /s/, and not a voiced alveolar fricative, /z/" for the same meaning. The "a" refers to the individual sound they utter, not picking from a set of voiced and voiceless /s/
Yup, exactly. I was clarifying the contrast between a orthographic "s" being pronounced as /s/ vs. /z/. Talking about phonetics without using a phonetic alphabet is confusing!
Yup, exactly. I was clarifying the contrast between a orthographic "s" being pronounced as /s/ vs. /z/. Talking about phonetics without using a phonetic alphabet is confusing!
Is that with a long "I" like in "idéntico" or a short one like in "illness"? I noticed a discrepancy in my pronunciation, and was rather surprised by it.
Is that with a long "I" like in "idéntico" or a short one like in "illness"? I noticed a discrepancy in my pronunciation, and was rather surprised by it.
That's exactly what I'd do if I were speaking Spanish. I was just surprised by the fact that I used the Spanish 'S' sound but the English 'I' sound when saying the word in English. I was curious...
That's exactly what I'd do if I were speaking Spanish. I was just surprised by the fact that I used the Spanish 'S' sound but the English 'I' sound when saying the word in English. I was curious if others had the same discrepancy.
Question for you. I'm an American who knows a little Spanish. I end up pronouncing "tildes" as /'tɪl deɪs/ as opposed to what I think is the proper Spanish pronunciation of /'til deɪs/ (that is...
Question for you. I'm an American who knows a little Spanish. I end up pronouncing "tildes" as /'tɪl deɪs/ as opposed to what I think is the proper Spanish pronunciation of /'til deɪs/ (that is using the "I" sound from the English word "illness" rather than "I" sound from the Spanish word "idéntico"). I suppose if I were speaking Spanish I'd pronounce it the other way.
How do you pronounce "tildes"? Does it differ if you are speaking English vs Spanish?
Tilda Swinton can have the best ~swinton fan group on this platform.
Damn it. I knew someone was going to take my idea.
As in the name Mathilde.
And how do you pronounce "Mathilde"? :P
Mr. Algernon, are we characters in a Hofstadterian silent dialogue? ;)
Ms Zoec, are we silent characters in a Hofstadterian dialogue?
Are you American, or British? It changes it.
They're not very different.
They should've had a woman say them both or vice versa, having a man say one anď a woman the other is kinda off. I can't tell the difference.
That's probably because there is no significant difference between the British and American pronunciations of "tilde". It's not like "fast" or "car" or "new" where the differences are more noticeable.
potato potato
I've always been saying it 'til-day' and not 'til-duh,' but it seems like I'm in the minority here.
If you're in the minority, then so am I. It probably comes from the fact that I first learned the word in the context of middle-school Spanish, but I pronounce it 'till-day' and 'till-dace' (i.e. with an unvoiced 'S' and not a voiced 'Z' for the plural) respectively.
I'm a little confused by this. Isn't an 'S' just an unvoiced 'Z' to begin with? Kind of like how 'F' is an unvoiced 'V'.
You are right, of course, but I think @Arishaig was just saying that they use the unvoiced 'S' to pluralize tildes (as one would in Spanish) rather than the voiced 'S' (as one would in English).
That was my point. There is no voiced 'S' in English. When you use your vocal cords while making the mouth movement for an 'S', the result is a 'Z'.
I think we're all in complete agreement here, but it's hard to tell because we're using the concepts of letters and phonemes interchangeably. To be clear, I was saying that the letter 'S', in the context of word tildes, is pronounced as a voiced alveolar fricative in English and a voiceless alveolar fricative in Spanish. The first sound is represented in IPA as /z/, while the second is represented in IPA as /s/. In English and Spanish orthography, however, both of these sounds are represented by the letter 'S' :)
I think it's safe to say that that's exactly what's happening here, and led to confusion on my part.
Thanks for clearing it up for me, I wasn't aware of the difference in the Spanish pronunciation of 'S'.
Of course. Thanks right back for making my first interaction on Tildes a friendly and interesting one!
You are exactly right @zap. I didn't want to break out the IPA in mixed company ;). When I referred to a "voiced S" I did indeed mean the /z/ phoneme as differentiated from the /s/ phoneme.
They were just describing the two sounds in a way that shows how they contrast. They could have said "with a voiceless alveolar fricative, /s/, and not a voiced alveolar fricative, /z/" for the same meaning. The "a" refers to the individual sound they utter, not picking from a set of voiced and voiceless /s/
Yup, exactly. I was clarifying the contrast between a orthographic "s" being pronounced as /s/ vs. /z/. Talking about phonetics without using a phonetic alphabet is confusing!
Is that with a long "I" like in "idéntico" or a short one like in "illness"? I noticed a discrepancy in my pronunciation, and was rather surprised by it.
That's exactly what I'd do if I were speaking Spanish. I was just surprised by the fact that I used the Spanish 'S' sound but the English 'I' sound when saying the word in English. I was curious if others had the same discrepancy.
Thanks!
Perhaps it's a result of growing up around hispanic culture, but I've always heard it said as 'til-day'. This thread genuinely confused me!
Question for you. I'm an American who knows a little Spanish. I end up pronouncing "tildes" as /'tɪl deɪs/ as opposed to what I think is the proper Spanish pronunciation of /'til deɪs/ (that is using the "I" sound from the English word "illness" rather than "I" sound from the Spanish word "idéntico"). I suppose if I were speaking Spanish I'd pronounce it the other way.
How do you pronounce "tildes"? Does it differ if you are speaking English vs Spanish?
I’ve always pronounced the character as in ‘tilled’ - but I’m a Brit.
Tilde as in "til death do us part."
Hmm, I say til-dee. I don't really care of the "correct" pronunciation, I like mine better.
Same here, more fun to say, rhymes with Arbys.
Brit here. Concur. Basically ‘Tilled’, as in the result of ploughing earth.
Oh god, i'm stupid. I always say "Tie-eld" in my head.
Til-duh
Neither? I say till-dee
Throat Warbler Mangrove.
I think you mean luxury yacht.